#1. During which of the following stages of labor would the nurse assess “crowning”?
Crowing, which occurs when the newborn’s head or presenting part appears at the vaginal opening, occurs during the second stage of labor.
During the first stage of labor, cervical dilation and effacement occur.
During the third stage of labor, the newborn and placenta are delivered.
The fourth stage of labor lasts from 1 to 4 hours after birth, during which time the mother and newborn recover from the physical process of birth and the mother’s organs undergo the initial readjustment to the nonpregnant state.
#2. Which of the following assessment findings would the nurse expect if the client develops DVT?
Classic symptoms of DVT include muscle pain, the presence of Homans sign, and swelling of the affected limb.
Midcalf pain, tenderness, and redness, along the vein reflect superficial thrombophlebitis.
Chills, fever and malaise occurring 2 weeks after delivery reflect pelvic thrombophlebitis.
Chills, fever, stiffness and pain occurring 10 to 14 days after delivery suggest femoral thrombophlebitis.
#3. Which of the following would cause a false-positive result on a pregnancy test?
A false-positive reaction can occur if the pregnancy test is performed less than 10 days after an abortion.
Performing the tests too early or too late in the pregnancy, storing the urine sample too long at room temperature, or having a spontaneous or missed abortion impending can all produce false-negative results.
#4. Which of the following amounts of blood loss following birth marks the criterion for describing postpartum hemorrhage?
Postpartum hemorrhage is defined as blood loss of more than 500 ml following birth.
Any amount less than this not considered postpartum hemorrhage.
#5. Which of the following would the nurse assess in a client experiencing abruptio placenta?
A client with abruptio placentae may exhibit concealed or dark red bleeding, possibly reporting sudden intense localized uterine pain.
The uterus is typically firm to boardlike, and the fetal presenting part may be engaged.
Bright red, painless vaginal bleeding, a palpable fetal outline and a soft nontender abdomen are manifestations of placenta previa.
#6. When assessing the adequacy of sperm for conception to occur, which of the following is the most useful criterion?
Although all of the factors listed are important, sperm motility is the most significant criterion when assessing male infertility.
Sperm count, sperm maturity, and semen volume are all significant, but they are not as significant sperm motility.
#7. When talking with a pregnant client who is experiencing aching swollen, leg veins, the nurse would explain that this is most probably the result of which of the following?
Pressure of the growing uterus on blood vessels results in an increased risk for venous stasis in the lower extremities.
Subsequently, edema and varicose vein formation may occur.
Thrombophlebitis is an inflammation of the veins due to thrombus formation.
Pregnancy-induced hypertension is not associated with these symptoms.
Gravity plays only a minor role with these symptoms.
#8. Which of the following statements best describes hyperemesis gravidarum?
The description of hyperemesis gravidarum includes severe nausea and vomiting, leading to electrolyte, metabolic, and nutritional imbalances in the absence of other medical problems.
Hyperemesis is not a form of anemia.
Loss of appetite may occur secondary to the nausea and vomiting of hyperemesis, which, if it continues, can deplete the nutrients transported to the fetus.
Diarrhea does not occur with hyperemesis.
#9. When PROM occurs, which of the following provides evidence of the nurse’s understanding of the client’s immediate needs?
PROM can precipitate many potential and actual problems; one of the most serious is the fetus loss of an effective defense against infection.
This is the client’s most immediate need at this time.
Typically, PROM occurs about 1 hour, not 4 hours, before labor begins.
Fetal viability and gestational age are less immediate considerations that affect the plan of care.
Malpresentation and an incompetent cervix may be causes of PROM.
#10. A client LMP began July 5. Her EDD should be which of the following? A
To determine the EDD when the date of the client’s LMP is known use Nagele rule.
To the first day of the LMP, add 7 days, subtract 3 months, and add 1 year (if applicable) to arrive at the EDD as follows: 5 7 = 12 (July) minus 3 = 4 (April). Therefore, the client’s EDD is April 12.